Difference between revisions of "2014 AIME I Problems/Problem 11"
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Adding these cases together, we get that the total number of ways to end up on <math>y = x</math> is <math>4(20 + 120 + 300) + 400 = 2160</math>. Thus, our probability is <math>\frac{2160}{4096}</math>. When this fraction is fully reduced, it is <math>\frac{135}{256}</math>, so our answer is <math>135 + 256 = \boxed{391}.</math> | Adding these cases together, we get that the total number of ways to end up on <math>y = x</math> is <math>4(20 + 120 + 300) + 400 = 2160</math>. Thus, our probability is <math>\frac{2160}{4096}</math>. When this fraction is fully reduced, it is <math>\frac{135}{256}</math>, so our answer is <math>135 + 256 = \boxed{391}.</math> | ||
+ | |||
+ | ==Solution (casework 2)== | ||
+ | Make a chart: | ||
+ | |||
+ | R (+) L (-) | U (+) D (-) | ||
+ | +1 +1 +1 | +1 +1 + 1 | ||
+ | +1 +1 -1 | +1 +1 -1 | ||
+ | +1 -1 -1 | +1 -1 -1 | ||
+ | -1 -1 -1 | -1 -1 -1 | ||
+ | |||
+ | +1 +1 +1 -1 | +1 +1 | ||
+ | +1 +1 -1 -1 | +1 -1 | ||
+ | +1 -1 -1 -1 | -1 -1 (x2 symmetry by swapping R-L and U-D) | ||
+ | |||
+ | +1 +1 +1 -1 -1 | +1 | ||
+ | +1 +1 -1 -1 -1 | -1 (x2 symmetry) | ||
+ | |||
+ | +1 +1 +1 -1 -1 -1 | (x2 symmetry) | ||
+ | |||
+ | Note we have to multiply by two to account for cases like +1 +1 +1 | -1 -1 -1. | ||
+ | |||
+ | Now, we use multinomials and do the arithmetic: | ||
+ | 6C3 * 2 + 6!/(2!2!) * 2 + 6!/(2!2!) * 2 + 6C3 * 2 = 2(20 + 180 + 180 + 20) = 800 | ||
+ | 6!/(3!2!) * 2 + 6!/(2!2!) + 6!/(3!2!)) * 2 = 120 + 180 + 120 = 420 (x2) | ||
+ | 6!/(3!2!) * 2 + 6!/(3!2!) * 2 = 120 + 120 = 240 (x2) | ||
+ | 6C3 = 20 (x2) | ||
+ | |||
+ | Thus, there are 800 + 840 + 480 + 40 = 2160 cases. Because there is <math>4^6</math> total cases, the answer is <math>\frac{2160}{4^6} = \frac{135}{256}</math>, so the answer is <math>\boxed{391}</math>. | ||
== See also == | == See also == | ||
{{AIME box|year=2014|n=I|num-b=10|num-a=12}} | {{AIME box|year=2014|n=I|num-b=10|num-a=12}} | ||
{{MAA Notice}} | {{MAA Notice}} |
Revision as of 20:37, 22 March 2014
Problem 11
A token starts at the point of an -coordinate grid and then makes a sequence of six moves. Each move is 1 unit in a direction parallel to one of the coordinate axes. Each move is selected randomly from the four possible directions and independently of the other moves. The probability the token ends at a point on the graph of is , where and are relatively prime positive integers. Find .
Solution (casework)
We have 4 possible moves: U, D, R, and L. The total number of paths that could be taken is , or . There are 4 possible cases that land along the line : or . We will count the number of ways to end up at and , multiply them by 4 to account for the other quadrants, and add this to the number of ways to end up at .
- Case 1: The token ends at . In order for the token to end up here, it must have had 3 right moves, and 3 up moves. In other words, the total number of ways to get here is the ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence , which is
- Case 2: The token ends at . In order for the token to end up here, it could have had 2 up moves, 3 right moves, and 1 left move; or 2 right moves, 3 up moves, and 1 down move. Thus, the total number of ways to get here is sum of the ways to rearrange the letters in the sequences and , both of which are , for a total of possibilities.
- Case 3: The token ends at . In order for the token to end up here, it could have had:
- 1 right move, 3 up moves, and 2 down moves. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
- 1 up move, 3 right moves, and 2 left moves. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
- 2 right moves, 1 left move, 2 up moves, and 1 down move. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
Thus, the total number of ways to end up at is .
- Case 4: The token ends at . In order for the token to end up here, it could have had:
- 3 right moves and 3 left moves. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
- 3 up moves and 3 down moves. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
- 1 right move, 1 left move, 2 up moves, and 2 down moves. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
- 1 up move, 1 down move, 2 right moves, and 2 left moves. In this case, the number of ways to rearrange the letters in the sequence is
Thus, the total number of ways to end up at is .
Adding these cases together, we get that the total number of ways to end up on is . Thus, our probability is . When this fraction is fully reduced, it is , so our answer is
Solution (casework 2)
Make a chart:
R (+) L (-) | U (+) D (-) +1 +1 +1 | +1 +1 + 1 +1 +1 -1 | +1 +1 -1 +1 -1 -1 | +1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 | -1 -1 -1
+1 +1 +1 -1 | +1 +1 +1 +1 -1 -1 | +1 -1 +1 -1 -1 -1 | -1 -1 (x2 symmetry by swapping R-L and U-D)
+1 +1 +1 -1 -1 | +1 +1 +1 -1 -1 -1 | -1 (x2 symmetry)
+1 +1 +1 -1 -1 -1 | (x2 symmetry)
Note we have to multiply by two to account for cases like +1 +1 +1 | -1 -1 -1.
Now, we use multinomials and do the arithmetic:
6C3 * 2 + 6!/(2!2!) * 2 + 6!/(2!2!) * 2 + 6C3 * 2 = 2(20 + 180 + 180 + 20) = 800 6!/(3!2!) * 2 + 6!/(2!2!) + 6!/(3!2!)) * 2 = 120 + 180 + 120 = 420 (x2) 6!/(3!2!) * 2 + 6!/(3!2!) * 2 = 120 + 120 = 240 (x2) 6C3 = 20 (x2)
Thus, there are 800 + 840 + 480 + 40 = 2160 cases. Because there is total cases, the answer is , so the answer is .
See also
2014 AIME I (Problems • Answer Key • Resources) | ||
Preceded by Problem 10 |
Followed by Problem 12 | |
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 | ||
All AIME Problems and Solutions |
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