Difference between revisions of "Talk:2012 USAMO Problems/Problem 4"

(Created page with "Though not as elegant as the inductive proof, my proof for this problem is quite different from the one posted in the Page, so I would like to paste it here just for reference. ...")
 
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Though not as elegant as the inductive proof, my proof for this problem is quite different from the one posted in the Page, so I would like to paste it here just for reference.
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1. First, <math>f(1)</math>, <math>f(2)</math> equal to <math>1</math> or <math>2</math>.
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2. Second, suppose that for all <math>n</math>, <math>f(n)\le 2</math>. Then for <math>n\ge 3</math>,
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<math> 2\ge f(n!)  = f(1) + C(n!-1) </math>  (<math>C\ge 0</math> is an integer.)
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<math>\ge -2+5C</math>, therefore <math>5C\le 4</math> and so <math>C=0</math> is the only possibility. Hence <math>f(n)!=f(n!)=f(1)</math>. Similar argument yields that <math>f(n)!=f(n!)=f(2)</math>, so <math>f</math> is a constant function, which can only be <math>f=1</math> or <math>f=2</math>.
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3. From now on, suppose that there exists <math>n_0\ge 3</math> such that <math>f(n_0)>2</math>.
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4. By <math>2| (n_0!-2) | f(n_0)!-f(2)</math> and that <math>2|f(n_0)!</math> we know that <math>2|f(2)</math>, or <math>f(2)=2</math>.
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5. By <math>f(3)!=f(6)=4C+f(2)=4C+2</math> we know that <math>f(3)\le 3</math>, and by <math>3|f(n_0)!-f(3)</math> and <math>3|f(n_0)!</math> we know that <math>3|f(3)</math>, therefore <math>f(3)=3</math>.
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6. Then by <math>2|f(3)-f(1)</math> we know that <math>f(1)</math> is odd, so <math>f(1)=1</math>.
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7. For <math>n\ge 3</math>, <math>f(n)=C_1(n-1)+1=C_2(n-2)+2</math> implies that <math>f(n)>2</math>, otherwise <math>C_1=C_2=0</math> and that <math>f(n)=1=2</math>, which is a contradiction. Since <math>f(n)>2</math>, now we have <math>C_2\ge 1</math>, so <math>f(n)\ge (n-2)+2=n</math>. Now we have a lower bound. What is more difficult is to find an upper bound of <math>f(n)</math>. (I know from the main Page it is not too hard to get the upper bound, but to be honest it takes me a while to figure it out.)
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8. Therefore <math>n|f(n)!</math>. Now <math>f( (n+1)!) = f(n!) + C( n \cdot n!)</math>, therefore if <math>f(n)=n</math>, then suppose <math>f(n+1)=D(n+1)</math>, then we have
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<math></math> (D(n+1))! = n! + Cn\cdot n!, which is not divisible by <math>n\cdot n!</math> and so <math>D=1</math>. By induction we have <math>f(n)=n</math> for all <math>n\ge 3</math>.
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Though not as elegant as the inductive proof, my proof for this problem is quite different from the one posted in the Page, so I would like to paste it here just for reference.
 
Though not as elegant as the inductive proof, my proof for this problem is quite different from the one posted in the Page, so I would like to paste it here just for reference.
  

Revision as of 21:25, 3 May 2012

Though not as elegant as the inductive proof, my proof for this problem is quite different from the one posted in the Page, so I would like to paste it here just for reference.

1. First, $f(1)$, $f(2)$ equal to $1$ or $2$.

2. Second, suppose that for all $n$, $f(n)\le 2$. Then for $n\ge 3$,

$2\ge f(n!)  = f(1) + C(n!-1)$ ($C\ge 0$ is an integer.) $\ge -2+5C$, therefore $5C\le 4$ and so $C=0$ is the only possibility. Hence $f(n)!=f(n!)=f(1)$. Similar argument yields that $f(n)!=f(n!)=f(2)$, so $f$ is a constant function, which can only be $f=1$ or $f=2$.

3. From now on, suppose that there exists $n_0\ge 3$ such that $f(n_0)>2$.

4. By $2| (n_0!-2) | f(n_0)!-f(2)$ and that $2|f(n_0)!$ we know that $2|f(2)$, or $f(2)=2$.

5. By $f(3)!=f(6)=4C+f(2)=4C+2$ we know that $f(3)\le 3$, and by $3|f(n_0)!-f(3)$ and $3|f(n_0)!$ we know that $3|f(3)$, therefore $f(3)=3$.

6. Then by $2|f(3)-f(1)$ we know that $f(1)$ is odd, so $f(1)=1$.

7. For $n\ge 3$, $f(n)=C_1(n-1)+1=C_2(n-2)+2$ implies that $f(n)>2$, otherwise $C_1=C_2=0$ and that $f(n)=1=2$, which is a contradiction. Since $f(n)>2$, now we have $C_2\ge 1$, so $f(n)\ge (n-2)+2=n$. Now we have a lower bound. What is more difficult is to find an upper bound of $f(n)$. (I know from the main Page it is not too hard to get the upper bound, but to be honest it takes me a while to figure it out.)

8. Therefore $n|f(n)!$. Now $f( (n+1)!) = f(n!) + C( n \cdot n!)$, therefore if $f(n)=n$, then suppose $f(n+1)=D(n+1)$, then we have $$ (Error compiling LaTeX. Unknown error_msg) (D(n+1))! = n! + Cn\cdot n!, which is not divisible by $n\cdot n!$ and so $D=1$. By induction we have $f(n)=n$ for all $n\ge 3$.

Though not as elegant as the inductive proof, my proof for this problem is quite different from the one posted in the Page, so I would like to paste it here just for reference.

1. First, $f(1)$, $f(2)$ equal to $1$ or $2$.

2. Second, suppose that for all $n$, $f(n)\le 2$. Then for $n\ge 3$,

$2\ge f(n!)  = f(1) + C(n!-1)$ ($C\ge 0$ is an integer.) $\ge -2+5C$, therefore $5C\le 4$ and so $C=0$ is the only possibility. Hence $f(n)!=f(n!)=f(1)$. Similar argument yields that $f(n)!=f(n!)=f(2)$, so $f$ is a constant function, which can only be $f=1$ or $f=2$.

3. From now on, suppose that there exists $n_0\ge 3$ such that $f(n_0)>2$.

4. By $2| (n_0!-2) | f(n_0)!-f(2)$ and that $2|f(n_0)!$ we know that $2|f(2)$, or $f(2)=2$.

5. By $f(3)!=f(6)=4C+f(2)=4C+2$ we know that $f(3)\le 3$, and by $3|f(n_0)!-f(3)$ and $3|f(n_0)!$ we know that $3|f(3)$, therefore $f(3)=3$.

6. Then by $2|f(3)-f(1)$ we know that $f(1)$ is odd, so $f(1)=1$.

7. For $n\ge 3$, $f(n)=C_1(n-1)+1=C_2(n-2)+2$ implies that $f(n)>2$, otherwise $C_1=C_2=0$ and that $f(n)=1=2$, which is a contradiction. Since $f(n)>2$, now we have $C_2\ge 1$, so $f(n)\ge (n-2)+2=n$. Now we have a lower bound. What is more difficult is to find an upper bound of $f(n)$. (I know from the main Page it is not too hard to get the upper bound, but to be honest it takes me a while to figure it out.)

8. Therefore $n|f(n)!$. Now $f( (n+1)!) = f(n!) + C( n \cdot n!)$, therefore if $f(n)=n$, then suppose $f(n+1)=D(n+1)$, then we have $$ (Error compiling LaTeX. Unknown error_msg) (D(n+1))! = n! + Cn\cdot n!, which is not divisible by $n\cdot n!$ and so $D=1$. By induction we have $f(n)=n$ for all $n\ge 3$.