Difference between revisions of "1963 IMO Problems/Problem 3"
m (→Solution) |
Mathboy100 (talk | contribs) (→Solution) |
||
(9 intermediate revisions by 2 users not shown) | |||
Line 5: | Line 5: | ||
==Solution== | ==Solution== | ||
+ | Let <math>a_1 = p_1p_2</math>, <math>a_2 = p_2p_3</math>, etc. | ||
+ | |||
+ | Plot the <math>n</math>-gon on the cartesian plane such that <math>p_1p_2</math> is on the <math>x</math>-axis and the entire shape is above the <math>x</math>-axis. There are two cases: the number of sides is even, and the number of sides is odd: | ||
+ | |||
+ | <math>\textbf{Case 1: Even}</math> | ||
+ | |||
+ | In this case, the side with the topmost points will be <math>p_{\frac{n}{2}+1}p_{\frac{n}{2}+2}</math>. To obtain the <math>y</math>-coordinate of this top side, we can multiply the lengths of the sides <math>a_1</math>, <math>a_2</math>, ... <math>a_{\frac{n}{2}}</math> by the sine of the angle they make with the <math>x</math>-axis: | ||
+ | |||
+ | <cmath>y\textrm{-coordinate} = \sum_{k = 1}^{\frac{n}{2}}a_k \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}.\textbf{ (1)}</cmath> | ||
+ | |||
+ | We can obtain the <math>y</math>-coordinate of the top side in a different way by multiplying the lengths of the sides <math>a_{\frac{n}{2}+1}</math>, <math>a_{\frac{n}{2}+2}</math>, ... <math>a_n</math> by the sine of the angle they make with the <math>x</math>-axis to get the <math>\emph{negated}</math> <math>y</math>-coordinate of the top side: | ||
+ | |||
+ | <cmath>-y\textrm{-coordinate} = \sum_{k = \frac{n}{2}+1}^{n}a_k \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>y\textrm{-coordinate} = \sum_{k = \frac{n}{2}+1}^{n}a_k \cdot -\sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath> = \sum_{k = \frac{n}{2}+1}^{n}a_k \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-\frac{n}{2}-1)}{n}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath> = \sum_{k = 1}^{\frac{n}{2}}a_{k+\frac{n}{2}} \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}.\textbf{ (2)}</cmath> | ||
+ | |||
+ | It must be true that <math>\textbf{(1)} = \textbf{(2)}</math>. This implies that <math>a_k = a_{k+\frac{n}{2}}</math> for all <math>1 \leq k \leq \frac{n}{2}</math>, and therefore <math>a_1=a_2=\cdots = a_n</math>. | ||
+ | |||
+ | <math>\textbf{Case 2: Odd}</math> | ||
+ | |||
+ | This case is very similar to before. We will compute the <math>y</math>-coordinate of the top point <math>p_{frac{n+3}{2}}</math> two ways: | ||
+ | |||
+ | <cmath>y\textrm{-coordinate} = \sum_{k = 2}^{\frac{n+1}{2}}a_k \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}.\textbf{ (3)}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>-y\textrm{-coordinate} = \sum_{k = \frac{n+3}{2}}^{n}a_k \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>y\textrm{-coordinate} = \sum_{k = \frac{n+3}{2}}^{n}a_k \cdot -\sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath> = \sum_{k = \frac{n+3}{2}}^{n}a_k \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(n - k + 1)}{n}</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath> = \sum_{k = 2}^{\frac{n+1}{2}}a_{n-k+2} \cdot \sin \frac{2\pi(k-1)}{n}.\textbf{ (4)}</cmath> | ||
+ | |||
+ | It must be true that <math>\textbf{(3)} = \textbf{(4)}</math>. Then, we get <math>a_k = a_{n-k+2}</math> for all <math>2 \leq k \leq \frac{n+1}{2}</math>. Therefore, <math>a_2=a_3=\cdots = a_n</math>. It is trivial that <math>a_1</math> is then equal to the other values, so <math>a_1=a_2=\cdots = a_n</math>. This completes the proof. <math>\square</math> | ||
+ | |||
+ | ~mathboy100 | ||
+ | |||
+ | ==Solution 2== | ||
Define the vector <math>\vec{v_i}</math> to equal <math>\cos{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}\vec{i}+\sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}\vec{j}</math>. Now rotate and translate the given polygon in the Cartesian Coordinate Plane so that the side with length <math>a_i</math> is parallel to <math>\vec{v_i}</math>. We then have that | Define the vector <math>\vec{v_i}</math> to equal <math>\cos{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}\vec{i}+\sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}\vec{j}</math>. Now rotate and translate the given polygon in the Cartesian Coordinate Plane so that the side with length <math>a_i</math> is parallel to <math>\vec{v_i}</math>. We then have that | ||
Line 17: | Line 51: | ||
<cmath>\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i \sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}=\sum_{i=1}^{\lfloor \frac{n}{2}\rfloor} a_i \sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}+a_{n-i}\sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}(n-i)\right)} \geq 0</cmath> | <cmath>\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i \sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}=\sum_{i=1}^{\lfloor \frac{n}{2}\rfloor} a_i \sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}i\right)}+a_{n-i}\sin{\left(\frac{2\pi}{n}(n-i)\right)} \geq 0</cmath> | ||
− | There is equality only when <math>a_i=a_{n-i}</math> for all <math>i</math>. This implies that <math>a_1=a_{n-1}</math> and <math>a_2=a_n</math>, so we have that <math>a_1=a_2 | + | There is equality only when <math>a_i=a_{n-i}</math> for all <math>i</math>. This implies that <math>a_1=a_{n-1}</math> and <math>a_2=a_n</math>, so we have that <math>a_1=a_2=\cdots =a_n</math>. <math>\blacksquare</math> |
==See Also== | ==See Also== | ||
{{IMO box|year=1963|num-b=2|num-a=4}} | {{IMO box|year=1963|num-b=2|num-a=4}} |
Latest revision as of 16:58, 7 December 2022
Contents
Problem
In an -gon all of whose interior angles are equal, the lengths of consecutive sides satisfy the relation
Prove that .
Solution
Let , , etc.
Plot the -gon on the cartesian plane such that is on the -axis and the entire shape is above the -axis. There are two cases: the number of sides is even, and the number of sides is odd:
In this case, the side with the topmost points will be . To obtain the -coordinate of this top side, we can multiply the lengths of the sides , , ... by the sine of the angle they make with the -axis:
We can obtain the -coordinate of the top side in a different way by multiplying the lengths of the sides , , ... by the sine of the angle they make with the -axis to get the -coordinate of the top side:
It must be true that . This implies that for all , and therefore .
This case is very similar to before. We will compute the -coordinate of the top point two ways:
It must be true that . Then, we get for all . Therefore, . It is trivial that is then equal to the other values, so . This completes the proof.
~mathboy100
Solution 2
Define the vector to equal . Now rotate and translate the given polygon in the Cartesian Coordinate Plane so that the side with length is parallel to . We then have that
But for all , so
for all . This shows that , with equality when . Therefore
There is equality only when for all . This implies that and , so we have that .
See Also
1963 IMO (Problems) • Resources | ||
Preceded by Problem 2 |
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 | Followed by Problem 4 |
All IMO Problems and Solutions |