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Difference between revisions of "1966 IMO Problems/Problem 2"

(A full proof of the question is given)
(→‎Solution)
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and inserting this into the above equation we get:
 
and inserting this into the above equation we get:
 
<cmath>\iff a\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)+b\tan \frac{\beta -\alpha}{2}\left(1+\tan \beta \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0 </cmath>
 
<cmath>\iff a\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)+b\tan \frac{\beta -\alpha}{2}\left(1+\tan \beta \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0 </cmath>
−
<cmath>\underbrace{\iff}_{\tan -A=-\tan B}a\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)-b\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \beta \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0  </cmath>
+
<cmath>\underbrace{\iff}_{\tan -A=-\tan A}a\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)-b\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \beta \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0  </cmath>
 
<cmath>\iff \tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(a-b+\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}(a\tan\alpha -b\tan \beta) \right)=0 </cmath>
 
<cmath>\iff \tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(a-b+\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}(a\tan\alpha -b\tan \beta) \right)=0 </cmath>
 
Now, since <math>a>b</math> and the definitions of <math>a,b,\alpha,\beta</math> being part of the definition of a triangle, <math>\alpha >\beta</math>.
 
Now, since <math>a>b</math> and the definitions of <math>a,b,\alpha,\beta</math> being part of the definition of a triangle, <math>\alpha >\beta</math>.

Revision as of 17:54, 13 January 2022

Let $a$, $b$, and $c$ be the lengths of the sides of a triangle, and $\alpha,\beta,\gamma$ respectively, the angles opposite these sides. If,

\[a+b=\tan{\frac{\gamma}{2}}(a\tan{\alpha}+b\tan{\beta})\]

Prove that the triangle is isosceles.

Solution

We'll prove that the triangle is isosceles with $a=b$. We'll prove that $a=b$. Assume by way of contradiction WLOG that $a>b$. First notice that as $\gamma = \pi -\alpha-\beta$ then and the identity $\tan\left(\frac \pi 2 - x \right)=\cot x$ our equation becomes: \[a+b=\cot \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\left(a\tan \alpha + b\tan \beta \right)\]\[\iff a\tan\frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}+b\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}=a\tan \alpha + b\tan \beta\] \[\iff a\left(\tan \alpha -\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)+b\left(\tan \beta -\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0\] Using the identity $\tan (A-B)=\frac {\tan A-\tan B}{1+\tan A\tan B}$ $\iff \tan A-\tan B=\tan(A-B)(1+\tan A\tan B)$ and inserting this into the above equation we get: \[\iff a\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)+b\tan \frac{\beta -\alpha}{2}\left(1+\tan \beta \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0\] \[\underbrace{\iff}_{\tan -A=-\tan A}a\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}\right)-b\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(1+\tan \beta \tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2} \right)=0\] \[\iff \tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\left(a-b+\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}(a\tan\alpha -b\tan \beta) \right)=0\] Now, since $a>b$ and the definitions of $a,b,\alpha,\beta$ being part of the definition of a triangle, $\alpha >\beta$. Now, $\pi >\alpha -\beta >0$ (as $\alpha+\beta +\gamma = \pi$ and the angles are positive), $\tan \frac{\alpha -\beta}{2}\neq 0$, and furthermore, $\tan \frac{\alpha+\beta}{2}>0$. By all the above, \[\left(a-b+\tan \frac{\alpha +\beta}{2}(a\tan\alpha -b\tan \beta) \right)>0\] Which contradicts our assumption, thus $a\leq b$. By the symmetry of the condition, using the same arguments, $a\geq b$. Hence $a=b$.

See Also

1966 IMO (Problems) • Resources
Preceded by
Problem 1 		1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 Followed by
Problem 3
All IMO Problems and Solutions
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